Fire Support Team (FIST) Certification Practice Exam

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• What defines the areas allocated for fire clearance and operational coordination between units?
• What measures do commanders use to define lines of responsibility for friendly forces?
• What does Target Description refer to in the context of target engagement?
• During registration, how is deviation refinement determined?
• What type of control allows a JTAC/FAC (A) to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement under specific restrictions?
• What task is aimed at rendering a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• What area typically provides artillery systems the ability to maneuver defensively?
• How are restrictive fire support measures characterized?
• What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
• Which forward observer control option requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?
• Failure to select proper shell fuze combinations may result in what?
• What tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective?
• What brevity term signifies acquisition of laser designation, or that the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable?
• What direction will observers convert their direction to for CFF requests unless otherwise stated?
• What characterizes detected objects in the operational environment for engagement decisions?
• What is the process for fixing, observing, and reporting the location of friendly forces?
• When should the observer-target direction be sent?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in descending forward flight?
• What rotary-wing attack tactic is used during level, forward flight of the aircraft?
• What type of spotting indicates the round has impacted closer than the target location?
• What method is most effective for determining an accurate firing solution during registration?
• Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain used to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities on the battlefield?
• What are the five HOB spottings?
• Which method of control is used to specify an exact duration for the impact of rounds?
• What brevity term indicates that an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
• Which identification method involves tracking forces within a given area?
• Which branch is the Battlefield Coordination Line specific to?
• Which aircraft sensor posture has the lead aircraft responsible for the friendly force and the wing aircraft scanning the objective?
• How can an observer maintain positive control when coordinating with SOF or Army Attack Aviation?
• In a polar plot mission, what indicates how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location?
• True or False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
• Which correction in the sequence pertains to the type of munitions being used?
• What is the primary purpose of mortar registration?
• When is a gun-target line considered hot?
• What must you advise the aircrew if executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual?
• Who is the senior field artillery commander for the theater who advises the maneuver commander?
• How many steps are there in the CAS execution template?
• True / False: When conducting an immediate mission, the Call for Fire is sent in three transmissions.
• True or False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
• True / False: In a polar plot mission, the FDC only needs to know the target location.
• What tactical mission task is designed to upset an enemy's formation, interrupt their timetable, or cause them to commit forces prematurely?
• What is a maneuver control measure for the coordination of military operations?
• What identifies the specific role of land, maritime, and amphibious commanders in military operations?
• Which entity handles immediate air support requests and coordinates CAS sorties?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is stationary or has little forward motion?
• What process prioritizes targets and determines appropriate fires for mission-planning?
• Which branch of service employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?
• What is the final step of the CAS execution template?
• Which of the following can be used as a navigational aid when self-locating?
• Which entity allocates resources and tasks forces through the air tasking order (ATO)?
• What is the purpose of the "Duration" control method?
• What type of maneuver is focused on attacking enemy forces from multiple directions simultaneously?
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
• During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke (HC), you use HE in adjustment until which bracket is split?
• Do Army Attack Aviation or AC-130 engagements necessitate terminal attack control?
• A specific boundary established by commanders prohibits effects crossing it. What is this boundary called?
• Which component assesses the risk of friendly fire during an operation?
• What factor is critical in adjusting fire to ensure the correct impact and effect?
• Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?
• Which field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion?
• What radar zone is closely monitored for weapon detections ahead of other sources?
• Which spotting indicates the burst located at the same level as the observer?
• Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission, how are the corrections sent?
• What brevity term refers to oscillating an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
• What should an observer do if they consistently miss target with corrections?
• What is the process of planning and executing fires to adequately cover targets?
• What is the circular error for CAT III in meters?
• Among the following, which is NOT one of the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?
• Which form should an observer use to record the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?
• What method of control would an observer use to specify the exact time rounds impact on the target?
• How many phases are there in the joint targeting cycle?
• What task is aimed at drawing an enemy's attention away from a principal operation?
• Which maneuver control measure is assigned by the maritime commander for fire support to ashore operations?
• During which step of the CAS execution template is the attacker given the authority to engage?
• What fuze can increase the precision of 155mm Artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds?
• What are the four adjustment techniques used for conducting area adjustment fires?
• True or False: The observer serves as the "eyes" of the indirect fire systems and the FDC serves as the "brain" of the system.
• What is defined as an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations?
• What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
• What is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• Which method of attack requires the target to be tally/contact/captured by the aircrew?
• True or False: Army Attack Aviation does not need to identify friendly locations before an engagement.
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is utilized when enemy contact is remote?
• What technique can improve an observer's positional accuracy?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the M929 WP round?
• What term is used during all types of control to authorize the aircraft to proceed with the attack profile, but does not grant weapons release?
• A Restrictive Fire Area is established to impose what kind of order?
• Which of the following is critical for situational awareness in air-to-ground operations?
• What is the DA form used for the Target List Worksheet?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
• What does the term 'running fire' refer to in rotary-wing attack tactics?
• Which radar zone requires immediate attention for hostile detection?
• How many sub munitions are in the M4831A1 DPICM?
• Linear and rectangular targets require orientation in terms of direction. The observer must send target description, length, width, and what else in the third transmission of the call for fire?
• What does the observer use to experience the average deviation of rounds during registration?
• What type of operation practices are prioritized by the targeting process?
• Which operations protect Army aviation assets near the forward line of troops?
• True or False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact.
• Which line prohibits fires from crossing between converging, friendly forces?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• When converting degrees to mils, what number must you multiply degrees by to find mils?
• What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?
• What are the four Fire Support functions?
• Which term refers to temporarily inhibiting enemy operational capacity?
• Target number AA1000 describes what kind of target?
• What term describes the targeting of enemy indirect fire systems before they engage friendly forces?
• Which support relationship provides support to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof?
• The purpose of establishing a fire support coordination measure includes which of the following?
• True or False: Clearance to fire includes are call for fire with "at my command" or "danger close."
• What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?
• Which line in the 9-Line CAS Brief describes the egress point of the aircraft?
• What is a defensive operation that focuses on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• When using successive bracketing, when does an observer request FFE?
• Which method of control would indicate that the observer can see the target clearly?
• True or False: For air-to-surface weapons, DANGER CLOSE procedures are determined by the standing posture column of the REDs.
• Which adjustment technique ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target?
• Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?
• Which radar zone is designated critical for protecting an asset crucial to mission success?
• What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point either visually or via sensor?
• What is defined as a target that takes precedence in the delivery of fires for a firing unit?
• Are restrictive fire support coordination measures designed to protect friendly forces?
• _____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.
• Which term describes a number of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence?
• In a JFO, what information is crucial for target engagement?
• What are the three deviation spottings used in fire support?
• How many options are available to employ the fire support team?
• What technique should be used when adjusting fire close to friendly positions?
• In terms of safety, what is essential during targeting in SLOCTOP?
• What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?
• In what manner is the sheaf adjusted for mortars during a registration?
• If an observer wants HE and then WP, what term would they use in the call for fire?
• Which operation involves preventing the enemy from engaging forces or assets?
• Which of the following measures is both permissive and restrictive in nature concerning operational areas?
• What is a round that is range correct during an impact registration considered as?
• What correction needs to be sent before a control correction during immediate suppression?
• What methods can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and surface fires?
• Which concept refers to the integration of fires and airspace coordination?
• What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?
• What is the role of permissive fire support coordination measures?
• Which term describes the time delay before a scheduled fire mission?
• As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect are you solely responsible for?
• What type of mission allows engagement of targets without an initial adjustment period?
• What is the specific area assigned for maneuvers by artillery units to enhance their survival?
• In relation to fire support, what does CFF stand for?
• Which forward observer control option assigns a specific fire support asset to an FO for requesting support?
• What does the method of control "Time on Target" refer to?
• A target whose loss significantly contributes to the success of a friendly action is referred to as what?
• What format is used to label a rectangular target, represented by target number AA1010?
• Which act involves designing a force or support staff to meet a specific task?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire mission report?
• Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be?
• What term is used to describe the total distance from the observer to the impact area during a fire mission?
• What term refers to unintentional or incidental injury or damage to lawful targets?
• What is a target identified too late for deliberate targeting, processed using dynamic targeting?
• What is the primary purpose of mensuration in Fire Support operations?
• In which aircraft sensor posture do both the lead and wing aircraft concentrate on the objective?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
• What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?
• What does a Restricted Area imply in military operations?
• Which CAS line must be read back for NATO forces that is not required for others?
• During an illumination mission, if your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds at a descent rate of 5 meters per second, what is your HOB correction?
• During the process of observation in the SLOCTOP method, which action is prioritized?
• Who oversees the entire process of joint fires, including planning and execution?
• What is the primary purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
• What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?
• What is defined as a planned set of similar targets scheduled for engagement?
• If you observe the flash and count 14 seconds before hearing the bang, how far is the impact using the flash to bang method?
• Vertical shift is sent in the target location if the difference in vertical shift is greater than or equal to how many meters?
• During adjustments, what is the purpose of splitting a bracket?
• Which FIST employment option has the FIST assets remaining at the company or troop level?
• Which asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?
• What brevity term would you use to begin using briefed communication procedures to counter communications jamming?
• Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
• What is the primary responsibility of the wing aircraft in the Neutral sensor posture?
• What FDC command does the FO receive after sending a CFF as "At My Command"?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason for including "MARK" in the method of engagement?
• What is the purpose of a Measure of Effectiveness?
• What term is used by a JTAC/FAC(A) to grant weapons release clearance during Type 1 and 2 control?
• What is the closest range bracket after which an observer must send refinement corrections for mortars if the last round is within a specified distance?
• What type of angle is azimuth measured from a north baseline?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is possible?
• Which support relationship is assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit?
• What FDC command does the FO receive after sending a CFF as "DNL" or after establishing a priority target?
• What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnances?
• What command relationship indicates a unit is a permanent part of a military organization?
• What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and gun-target lines?
• Which method would specify the time, in minutes and seconds after a hack statement, rounds impact on the target?
• If target length, or length and width are given, what additional information must the observer provide?
• What is required when conducting Close Air Support?
• What is a characteristic of a Priority Target?
• What brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?
• Which is the senior agency within the Marine Corps Command and Control System (MACCS)?
• If you measure the angular deviation of a round to be 40 mils to the right, how should you record this spotting?
• What is the average deviation expressed to when calculating correction?
• What is the rate of descent for M485A2 illumination rounds?
• What rotary-wing movement technique is employed when enemy contact is imminent?
• What is the first step of the CAS execution template?
• What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the maneuver commander's control conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• Which list identifies valid military targets under engagement restrictions?
• What are the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?
• Which of the following is not a recognized target type in military operations?
• What is one of the responsibilities of the team leader during an observation post operation?
• Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no shadows or dark spots?
• What does a Coordinated Fire Line allow regarding fire support?
• While executing a CFF, what spotting would you make if you received a Splash call and after waiting 5 seconds you neither see nor hear the round impact?
• The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of how many mils?
• A _____ is a planned target upon which actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered using dynamic targeting.
• What term describes a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets?
• What adjustment technique is best suited when observing an enemy at approximately 500 meters?
• Which command signifies that the specified number of rounds in the fire for effect has been fired?
• What area prohibits radar reporting around friendly weapons to avoid exposure?
• Which method of target location involves using map coordinates?
• What is a crucial step in the communication process during an operation using SLOCTOP?
• What brevity term signifies a FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
• True or False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
• Which control type requires visual acquisition of attacking aircraft and the target for each attack?
• When should you send a Splash correction?
• What action is indicative of successfully mitigating enemy threat through tactical missions?
• What does each letter of the situation update stand for when using TEFACHR?
• Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?
• What method of control should an observer use to inform the FDC of the total time to engage a target?
• If an FO observes a round impact beyond the adjusting point, what range spotting would that be?
• Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
• Which support relationship requires a force to support another supporting unit?
• What provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize enemy indirect fire weapons?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC cannot visually acquire the attacking aircraft or target?
• When conducting a call for fire, what is crucial to do before sending the adjustment?
• In a military context, why is it crucial for observers to self-locate accurately?
• What are the five lines of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• Which target is planned to support commander’s objectives through actions taken in the operational environment?
• What does a successful JFO employment heavily involve?
• What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly forces under fire?
• What is the term for the list of entities that are shielded from military operations by law?
• What range of wind speed is best for the production of smoke screens?
• What is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that measures task accomplishment?
• In the 9-Line CAS Brief, which line describes the target location?
• If target number AA1005 represents a linear target, how should it be properly labeled or drawn?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• What does the letter 'F' in the memory aid FA-PARCA represent?
• How many sub-munitions are in the M449 family of APICMs?
• What does a target provide a spotting as during a registration when you spot a round as range correct?
• Which munition is used with the 120mm mortar to minimize collateral damage?
• The goal of any indirect firing unit is to achieve which of the following on a target?
• What spotting would indicate uncertainty about the impact location?
• What is the method used for controlling time of delivery of fire?
• Which designation would you use to label a circular target with the number AA1015?
• Which air liaison unit is co-located with ground maneuver units?
• What does the control method "Check Fire" indicate?
• How many mils apart are the radial arms of an OF fan?
• What is the minimum range correction for smoke?
• Under SLOCTOP, which of the following is considered a warning for the team when occupying an observation post?
• How many range spottings are there?
• In which radar zone does the commander intend to engage hostile firing systems?
• In the flash to bang method of distance determination, you multiply the number of seconds by how many meters per second?
• Which step in the CAS execution template involves updating the situation for all parties involved?
• What is the primary focus of preparation fire in a tactical setting?
• What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets with a duration associated with the call for fire?
• Should JTACs/FAC(A)s respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just "readback correct" or "good readback"?
• What command relationship is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?
• True or False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision.
• Which tactical mission task renders enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with operations?
• Which relationship implies units function in a dependent and controlled manner as part of an organization?
• In the registration process, how is the final deviation adjustment expressed to the nearest?
• In precision registration, when two airbursts and two graze bursts are spotted, what HOB correction should be made?
• What term grants weapons release clearance for an aircraft to attack a target within prescribed parameters?
• Which FIST employment option ensures that most platoons in maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer?
• Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision?
• Who represents fire support for the maneuver platoon?
• What are the five parts of a terrain sketch?
• What brevity term indicates sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• What are the two Field Artillery core competencies provided to Army operations?
• Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils?
• What is a No Fire Area?
• What identifies whether the effects of the fires are sufficient to support the Joint Force Commander's objectives?
• What is the circular error for CAT IV in meters?
• What type of operation is designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?
• What is a term for two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously?
• Which command relationship involves placing units in a relatively permanent organization that controls them primarily?
• An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600 mils?
• What range does CAT II cover in meters?
• What can JTACs and FAC(A)s utilize to develop targeting data and provide terminal guidance?
• If the registration point is closer to the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be?
• When conducting an adjust fire mission with a laser grid, which detail is most crucial to communicate to the FDC?